Shouldn't it be w>2πF_s?
-
w_s = 2 * pi * f_s
-
since you need to sample at 2x or more the highest desired frequency to get proper reproduction, it should be
w>(1/2)w_s
w > (1/2) w_s
w > (1/2) 2 pi f_s
w > pi f_s
you need to sample at 2x or more the highest desired frequency to get proper reproduction
You need to sample at 2x the desired bandwidth, just bandpass filter the signal appropriately before sampling and you won't get aliasing.
Why are we measuring things in balls now?
Its standard practice for math equations involving spectral densities and Fourier transforms to use the testicles character for the independent variable.
Fourier analysis involves measuring the sampled strength of the signal at different points in time. Its also related to ARIMA models. Essentially, you're inspecting how cyclical some data is, and the testies are points in time.
By the way, there is an error in this meme, see the comment left by jjagaimo
Well, yeah, but how did a drawing of balls become used for that?
!I know it's omega, not balls, but you gotta commit to the bit!<
I was always told in signal processing class that the Ghost of Nyquist would haunt us
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