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(lemmy.world)
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this post was submitted on 03 Oct 2023
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Personally, I don't recall it being like this when I was younger. Then again, the biggest amount of drama I remember from way back then was stuff about a blowjob, a dress with stains, and the definition of "is." I'm sure there was probably more, but that was about the time I started paying some semblance of attention to things.
Now the Supreme Court is debating over whether “and” means “and” or “or”
Note: the implications of the actual piece of legislature this pertains to is very important, but the concept of arguing over the definition of “and” is still absurd
I dont think my desk can take much more punishment from me, slamming my head into it.
Into it or onto it? Better convene the assembly so we can try to achieve consensus
yes
Sorry, European here - what the actual fuck?
Basically there’s this piece of legislature regarding nonviolent drug offenders that will spare them from longer sentences so long as they do not have on their record conditions: A B, and C
The key issue being that “and” is written right at the end of condition B
The debate is basically over whether that means they cannot have A, B, AND C on their record collectively, or if it was intended to mean they cannot have A, cannot have B, AND cannot have C - as in they cannot have any one of them
Or perhaps alternatively, they cannot have either A, or B AND C together
Basically the wording is shit - likely intentionally, but it’s also probable that whoever wrote this is just dumb… Par for the course either way, really
Hope that wasn’t too complicated… I’ve made like 6 edits to this comment trying to clear it up as best I can lmao
That was well explained and blows my mind a court is wasting any time on that.
Here we have the convention when drafting legislation that the conjunction 'and' at the end of a list it means all things in the list- so A, B, and C. Whereas if 'or' appears, it means a choice from the list.
I get that maybe once upon a time there needed to be clarification in the courts, but that cannot me the first time such a drafting approach has been taken in legislation in the USA and so an interpretation must have been established already?
I can see why contextually there could be room for either interpretation, but it's astonishing a consistent interpretation hasn't been established.
Like I said, it was likely made intentionally vague - either with malicious intent or to give wiggle room for this exact sort of legal debacle while still getting the legislation passed
Or, again, whoever wrote this is stupid
It’s really a coin toss for either option
They recently ruled that "adjacent" means "adjoining" ... soooo ....