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[-] magic_lobster_party@kbin.run 31 points 1 year ago

Its decimal expansion is finite in the base pi.

[-] Steve@startrek.website 8 points 1 year ago
[-] Eatspancakes84@lemmy.world 9 points 1 year ago

No 10. 1 is the same number in any base.

[-] generaldenmark@programming.dev 2 points 1 year ago

In my experience, 1 is equivalent with 1’s in other base.. this particularly applies for base-ball

this post was submitted on 14 Mar 2024
700 points (100.0% liked)

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