this post was submitted on 12 Jun 2023
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My ISP screwed something up last month and no one in my county got an IPv4 address / route for close to 6 hours. Meanwhile, IPv6 worked flawlessly.
Would you not still be able to reach a website over IPv4 even if your IP is IPv6? I know almost nothing about networks, sorry.
IPv6 clients can communicate with IPv6 servers.
IPv4 clients can communicate with IPv4 servers.
In order to mix and match you need some intermediary server that has both IPv4 and IPv6 to translate.
For example my mobile service provider (T-Mobile US) doesn't support IPv4 on their network, however I can still access IPv4 services because they automatically route that traffic through a NAT64 server, which translates the IPv6 from my device into IPv4 heading to the IPv4-only service.
T-Mobile actually takes it a step further than many other IPv6-only service providers. NAT64 alone only solves problems with servers that are IPv4-only, whereas T-Mobile uses 464xlat (which includes NAT64) which also solves problems with apps on the user's device that are IPv4-only.
Sweet, thanks!
Possible but not “out of the box”, per se. some technological assistance is needed and if it doesn’t already exist within your own or your ISPs infrastructure it’s beyond the capabilities of a typical consumer.