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submitted 6 months ago by flamingos@feddit.uk to c/196
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[-] TowardsTheFuture@lemmy.zip 2 points 6 months ago

Are you suggesting gayness is measured in number of humans?

[-] AVincentInSpace@pawb.social 13 points 6 months ago* (last edited 6 months ago)

No, but each individual human is assigned identically one gayness value, therefore the number of values we must sort is equal to the number of living humans

[-] TowardsTheFuture@lemmy.zip 3 points 6 months ago

But the possible number of outcomes is not limited by the subset of living humans. While we may have a currently highest number that doesn’t mean it IS the highest possible, nor that there is exactly one of them.

[-] Tar_alcaran@sh.itjust.works 6 points 6 months ago

While we may have a currently highest number that doesn’t mean it IS the highest possible

I would argue you can only be gay if you're alive, so you only need to compare living people, the theoretical maximum doesn't matter, only the actual maximum of a finite number.

nor that there is exactly one of them.

Agreed. It might be a shared gold medal.

[-] AVincentInSpace@pawb.social 4 points 6 months ago* (last edited 6 months ago)

It is true that the gayest person currently alive, the gayest person ever in history, and the gayest person who could possibly exist may well exhibit three different levels of gayness; however, I believe that, were one sufficiently determined, it would be possible to find all three.

[-] uriel238 2 points 6 months ago

I'd argue each of has a gay expression, Gayness can absolutely change in accordance with time.

[-] h3mlocke@lemm.ee 1 points 6 months ago
this post was submitted on 27 May 2024
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