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[-] chumbalumber 1 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago)

You don't have to, but it seems perfectly easy since you don't have to write anything down to solve it. c*sin(arctan(b/a)) gives b, and c*cos(arctan(b/a)) gives a. I'm not disputing that you can do it without, but I don't think it's necessarily any quicker or easier.

[-] lolcatnip@reddthat.com 2 points 1 year ago

If it works it works. I just never would have thought to do it that way.

this post was submitted on 19 Dec 2023
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