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Heh (sh.itjust.works)
submitted 1 year ago by sjmarf@sh.itjust.works to c/memes@lemmy.ml
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[-] Kolrami@lemmy.world 19 points 1 year ago

q1 and q2 can be negative. The force is the same as if they were positive because -1 x -1 = 1

[-] Limitless_screaming@kbin.social 4 points 1 year ago

In this case yes, but if q1 was -20μC, q2 was 30μC, and r was 0.5m, then using -20μC as it is would make F equal to -21.6N which is just 21.6N of attraction force between the two charges.

[-] Pelicanen@sopuli.xyz 5 points 1 year ago

If they are oppositely charged particles, I would expect that there is a force of attraction acting on them, yes.

[-] Limitless_screaming@kbin.social 1 points 1 year ago

I am not saying that's wrong, just that there's 21.6N of attraction force between the two charges not -21.6N.

[-] Pelicanen@sopuli.xyz 2 points 1 year ago

But those are the same thing.

[-] Bene7rddso@feddit.de 3 points 1 year ago

No, if the force is negative it acts in the opposite direction

[-] Pelicanen@sopuli.xyz 5 points 1 year ago

Yes, and a force acting in the opposite direction of the distance is an attractive force.

[-] Pinklink@lemm.ee 1 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago)

But that if both are negative not one pos one neg like the previous commenter gave in their examples, so the true formula has an absolute value in the numerator: |q1Xq2|

[-] Bene7rddso@feddit.de 1 points 1 year ago

No, but there should be a minus in the Coulomb formula

this post was submitted on 05 Nov 2023
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