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this post was submitted on 22 Oct 2025
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Privacy
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it seems to me that people are arguing over semantics why it shouldn't be listed as a "logical fallacy". kinda reminds me of people arguing about semantics on why i shouldn't call people nazis when they're not actually members of the NSDAP. fucking infuriating.
It's more like calling "nazi" to all forms of authoritarian positions, even the left-wing authoritarians in the opposite side of the spectrum.
There's a distinction between "informal fallacy" and "formal / logical fallacy". Both have separate articles in wikipedia as well. Why not just call it "fallacy" without categorizing it into a specific subcategory it does not fit anyway?
Why does it need to be considered "formal" by some arbitrary standard to be both a fallacy and related to logic.
The "formal" part comes from "formal system", which is essentially the use of rules of inference based on an initial set of presuppositions, with an exact/mathematical approach to "truth".
The idea of "informal logic" is something some people have wanted to put forward, but it's a much younger and not as well defined term, and whether it should really be considered "logic" is something that has criticisms: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Informal_logic#Criticisms
Perhaps in the end all logic is formal logic, the problem is that we know from Gödel's incompleteness theorems that not everything is computable and translatable into a formal system.. to solve this you'd have to model the statements into a Gödel/Lobian machine (at which point you are essentially building an AI).
This seems a good answer, let's go with this!