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submitted 20 hours ago by NightOwl@lemmy.ca to c/worldnews@lemmy.ml
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[-] ocassionallyaduck@lemmy.world 8 points 17 hours ago* (last edited 17 hours ago)

So, by this logic, Post-War Japan was not a sovereign state.

How a country must operate during wartime versus peace is extremely different. And the UK in WWII also issued bonds and took debt. Were they no longer sovereign?

That part of your argument is ridiculous. Ukraine is an independent nation with its own sovereignty and territorial authority.

[-] marathon@thelemmy.club 2 points 2 hours ago

Japan was a vassal of America post WW2, so the logic is correct.

[-] Grapho@lemmy.ml 9 points 17 hours ago* (last edited 16 hours ago)

It absolutely wasnt lmao, it was literally occupied. How is this hard for y'all?

What's more, long after occupation ceased on paper, the US had such an economic, military, and diplomatic stranglehold on Japan that they bailed out the US and killed their own economy in the process in the early 80s

this post was submitted on 18 Mar 2025
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