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submitted 10 months ago by yogthos@lemmy.ml to c/socialism@lemmy.ml
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[-] Cowbee@lemmy.ml 3 points 10 months ago

That's an easy mistake to make. Judging countries by where they get their wealth, ie exploitation of the Global South, combined with judging by trajectory, will explain why this is a mistake.

[-] andyburke@fedia.io 1 points 10 months ago

Capitalism allowed the global north and "west" to outpace those other countries and exploit them in the first place. It wasn't moral, but capitalism is what positioned them in the first place.

[-] Cowbee@lemmy.ml 4 points 10 months ago

Yes, via violent domestic and hyper-violent international exploitation.

Read the linked text.

[-] andyburke@fedia.io 1 points 10 months ago

Like I said, it wasn't moral. It is still a result of capitalism. Think we've probably finished here because you're not my teacher and you don't assign me reading.

[-] Cowbee@lemmy.ml 3 points 10 months ago

It was not, it was a result of industrialization, followed by Imperialism.

Suit yourself though.

[-] andyburke@fedia.io 1 points 10 months ago

Colonial imperialism began with industrialization in your explanation? Capitalist countries were colonizing the world well before the industrial revolution.

[-] Cowbee@lemmy.ml 2 points 10 months ago

Colonialism is not the same as what I am referring to as Imperialism. I specifically mean the point at which Capitalism reaches outward and exports Capital to less developed countries to super-exploit for super-profits.

[-] andyburke@fedia.io 1 points 10 months ago
this post was submitted on 11 Jun 2024
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