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Why do some languages use gendered nouns?
(lemmy.world)
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this post was submitted on 19 Feb 2024
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It's a thing that can happen as more complex case ending systems like Latin lose audible distinctions over time.
You might think that'd just result in linguistic gender being skipped in favor of no case endings altogether like English, but that's not why English is theorized to have nixed gender.
Linguists have started to theorize that the Danelaw is what killed english grammatical gender, as old English and Old Norse were similar-ish languages at the time with a decent level of mutual intelligibility, but the big sticking point would have been disagreements on grammatical gender between the two languages. So the theory goes that inhabitants of the Danelaw just kinda stopped using it to facilitate less confusing mutual conversation when interacting with a speaker of the other language, and eventually that innovation spread south with the unification of the seven kingdoms into England.
What this tells us is that given a language with grammatical gender, it takes a very narrow set of circumstances to facilitate the conditions where a group might naturally innovate genderless communication.
What's actually kinda interesting is that Esperanto is having a moment like this, while technically you are to use the pronouns Li and Sxi, for he and her, Duolingo has a lot of the use of Si, which is a singular they, and since a lot of esperanto's modern speakers are duolingo users, a lot of folks are just using si.
Awesome answer.
I came here for NoStupidQuestions, but was blessed with AskLinguists! Haha
Do you know more about how does that work with languages that have had no gender to begin with? Hungarian for example has had no gendered nouns or pronouns for the past millennia.
If other Uralic languages are genderless I'd imagine it's just always been that way as far as can be reconstructed, otherwise I'd need to know more about the development of the Hungarian language from before the conquest of the Pannonian basin, because I'd imagine that you'd find the answers there if at all.
I also don't presume that genderless language has to evolve from gendered language, I was just pointing out that that's how it happened with English, a lot of east asian languages don't have grammatical gender for example and I'm like 99% sure that happened without a Danelaw scenario necessitating it to avoid fights breaking out over misgendering the nice silk everyone was admiring.
I speak Esperanto for 14 years now. And no, "si" is not a singular "they". That's a self-referencing pronoun. And if that usage is used for genderless addressing a person then this is simply incorrect usage, because people don't know how actually the language works. It's used in sentences like "li lavis sin" vs. "Li lavis lin". The first one says "he washes himself" and the second says "he washes him", the first references the person who executes the action to reference and the second says that the action is done on a different person.
If it comes to Esperanto and genderless usage then there ĝi (it) or ri (they). The first one would be more in accordance with the fundament of the language and the second is a new pronoun which is around since at least the 70s.
No need to misuse si.