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submitted 1 year ago by L4s@lemmy.world to c/technology@lemmy.world

TikTok says it’s not the algorithm, teens are just pro-Palestine — The company denied allegations that it has been promoting pro-Palestine content in an effort to sway American opinion::In a blog post, the company denied allegations that it has been promoting pro-Palestine content in an effort to sway American opinion.

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[-] Tavarin@lemmy.ca 1 points 1 year ago

That is what it means, as stated by the Arab league who expressly invaded Israel on its formation to attempt to eradicate the Jews. That is history, you need to get your facts straight.

It's only in recent years they've tried to rebrand the phrase, because their plan to eradicate the Jews failed.

And the land was not Palestine. It was part of the Ottoman empire, and has been passed from empire to empire throughout history. Everyone there displaced a previous group of peoples.

If you consider Israelis to be colonizers, then so to are the Palestinians. The Jews even have a more historical claim to the land from thousands of years ago than the Palestinians, most of whom showed up only after WW1.

[-] spiderplant@lemm.ee 1 points 1 year ago

So you're holding a phrase to its meaning 100 years ago and not its current meaning. Language evolves get over it.

Just because the current resident wasn't the original owner of a house, it does not give you the right to evict him and squat in it.

Most Palestinians were there before ww1, sounds like you are describing the European and American Jews.

[-] Tavarin@lemmy.ca 1 points 1 year ago

No, there was a massive Arab immigration into the area following WW1 and the fall of the Ottoman Empire. Most of the current Palestinians have only been there for 100 years.

And I'm following it's original meaning, because that is how Hamas means it. How are you so blind to that? You seem to get all your news from the Euro med Monitor, a propaganda organization with no verifiable sources.

[-] spiderplant@lemm.ee 2 points 1 year ago

According to both the Peel commission and the 1946 British survey, there was basically none. “Arab illegal immigration is mainly casual, temporary and seasonal,” said Peel, and the 1946 survey states “"… the expansion of the Moslem and Christian populations is due mainly to natural increase…"

The Jewish Historian Roberto Bachi estimates only about 900 Muslims per year immigrated between 1923 to 1946.

Where did the increase come from? According to the British register of Births and Deaths, it came from a natural net increase of 2.7%. (One of the highest recorded birth rates of all of the British controlled lands at 5%, and a high mortality rate of 2.3%.) In fact the estimated number of Muslims in 1947 is simply the number in the 1933 survey plus the net gain.

Peel: https://biblio-archive.unog.ch/Dateien/CouncilMSD/C-495-M-336-1937-VI_EN.pdf

1946 Survey: Population in Palestine and the Increase in Population. British Mandate: A Survey of Palestine: Volume I

Bachi: http://www.cicred.org/Eng/Public...

Vital Statistics figures from The Fertility and Mortality of the Population of Palestine, By: Hinden, Rita. Sociological Review (1908-1952). Jan/Apr40, Vol. 32 Issue 1/2, p29-49.

You seem to get all your information from Israeli propaganda with no verifiable sources.

[-] Tavarin@lemmy.ca 1 points 1 year ago

WW1 ended in 1918. You're missing some vital years there mate.

[-] spiderplant@lemm.ee 1 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago)

The Ottoman empire ended in 1923, your claim was that there was a huge influx of refugees from this collapse than population of Palestine at the time.

The data doesn't back you up.

If you want to find data that counters what I've posted then knock yourself out.

[-] Tavarin@lemmy.ca 1 points 1 year ago

I said post WW1, on multiple occasions.

[-] spiderplant@lemm.ee 1 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago)

No, there was a massive Arab immigration into the area following WW1 and the fall of the Ottoman Empire.

and the fall of the Ottoman Empire

This was a claim you made it turned out to be false.

The claim that there was mass immigration after ww1 I don't think can be proven because the first modern census was in 1922.

I'd love for you to provide a source for your claim and prove me wrong.

[-] spiderplant@lemm.ee 2 points 1 year ago

According to both the Peel commission and the 1946 British survey, there was basically none. “Arab illegal immigration is mainly casual, temporary and seasonal,” said Peel, and the 1946 survey states “"… the expansion of the Moslem and Christian populations is due mainly to natural increase…"

The Jewish Historian Roberto Bachi estimates only about 900 Muslims per year immigrated between 1923 to 1946.

Where did the increase come from? According to the British register of Births and Deaths, it came from a natural net increase of 2.7%. (One of the highest recorded birth rates of all of the British controlled lands at 5%, and a high mortality rate of 2.3%.) In fact the estimated number of Muslims in 1947 is simply the number in the 1933 survey plus the net gain.

Peel: https://biblio-archive.unog.ch/Dateien/CouncilMSD/C-495-M-336-1937-VI_EN.pdf

1946 Survey: Population in Palestine and the Increase in Population. British Mandate: A Survey of Palestine: Volume I

Bachi: http://www.cicred.org/Eng/Public...

Vital Statistics figures from The Fertility and Mortality of the Population of Palestine, By: Hinden, Rita. Sociological Review (1908-1952). Jan/Apr40, Vol. 32 Issue 1/2, p29-49.

You seem to get all your information from Israeli propaganda with no verifiable sources.

this post was submitted on 15 Nov 2023
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