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[Ethics] Why do people condemn Zoophilia on the basis of other animal's inability to consent but those same people kill animals without asking for their consent? Why such inconsistency? (lemmy.world)

submitted 1 week ago by when@lemmy.world to c/asklemmy@lemmy.ml

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[-] Nonconfrontational@lemmy.ml 2 points 5 days ago

No, now you're talking sense. It may be sarcastic, but you're absolutely correct. I don't like the subhuman phrasing, but we can work with that. Animal abuse is already a crime. Torturing or having sex with an animal are both crimes. Rape and murder are when people kill and forcibly have sex with people.

this post was submitted on 17 Jun 2026

163 points (100.0% liked)

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