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this post was submitted on 22 Aug 2025
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Why does Putin want to control the 4 oblasts, specifically?
Because he won't be able to controls the entirety of Ukraine.
This has been the same objective from the outset of the war. Why the 4 oblasts? Are we just erasing the seperatists there that Kiev has been at war with and shelling for the last decade?
"Separatists" just means Russians that wear unmarked uniforms. The Russians had the GRU there from the beginning. It wasn't an organic movement.
Yes, the Russians were there, for centuries. They are majority ethnically Russian, they speak Russian, and are culturally Russian. The Donbass region was added to Ukrainian jurisdiction in 1922, but to this day they are ethnically Russian. When the Euromaidan coup happened and the far-right Banderites took power, the Donbass region seceded.
"Ethnically Russian" is a racist dogwhistle. Like 30% of the us population is ethnically German. Should Germany now invade?
The US is a settler-colony, that's an entirely different situation. The Donbass region is historically a group occupied by ethnic Russians, Russian is the dominant language, and it has been this way for centuries. Even a basic Wikipedia article makes this clear. Whether or not the Donbass region is historically occupied by ethnic Russians isn't what's in question, what's important is that the post-Euromaidan government is a group of nationalist Banderites that have been suppressing ethnic Russians, including erasure of the Russian language.
This is why it's important to recognize that the seperatists have very good reasons to want to leave Ukraine. Those that are against their ability to join Russia through annexation must make the argument that they not be allowed to secede even from a government that has been shelling and slaughtering them.
Nonsense. Ukraine did not ban or suppress Russian-speaking people in Donbas in the sense of everyday life or private use of language. There were political disputes over language laws, which created tensions and fears, but international monitors have found no evidence of systematic persecution. Russia used the language issue as a major propaganda point to justify intervention.
After 2014, Ukraine adopted a number of laws restricting the public sphere of the Russian language:
There was no direct ban on private use, but systemic restrictions in the public space raised concerns among Russian-speaking citizens about the future of their linguistic identity.
Oh so we're just ignoring the statements of genocidal intent from Ukrainian leadership and the hours and hours of residential bombing footage? Just regular weSSterner shit
Russia would never bomb residential buildings... Amirite???
This isn't nonsense in any way, the fact that the Banderites currently in power in Kiev have been suppressing the Russian language is common knowledge. The unnamed "international monitors" are about as reliable as the UN "weapons inspectors" in Iraq. It makes perfect sense that the Ukrainian nationalists that uphold Stepan Bandera are racist against Russians.
5 Ukrainian oblasts, two regions of Georgia, one of Moldova, and the US presidency.
The US really is the land of tinfoil. If you're a dem or a republican, you have to pick your set of convoluted conspiranoid theories, what the fuck is even the point of evidence.
No, lol. Russia does not have control of the US presidency.
According to Russia, who just recently claimed not to have manipulated the outcome of the 2016 election in Trump's favour.
Looking at your other posts and recognizing your name, it seems you're someone who takes Russia's word for everything even on their patently absurd statements.
No, lol. I don't fall for BlueAnon nonesense. I take Russia's word when it comes to things backed up by material evidence, and doubt them otherwise. I'm a communist, I hold views common among communists.